[Greek and Latin] were languages that wives and servants could not understand, and therefore in which secrets were told. ... Women’s lack of Greek and Latin — in their own sex-segregated schools, they were taught French and German — kept them out of the universities and learned society.
Too obvious, I think. There were always a small number of women who had mastered Greek and Latin--Thomas More taught his daughter Margaret those languages, and one of her or anyway his female descendants, translated his Latin works in to English. In Samuel Johnson's time, a woman brought out a well regarded translation of Tacitus.
Originally the purpose of Latin and Greek in the European curriculum was to prepare students for the professions, including the clerical, which were closed to women. So why would the schoolmasters teach them Latin and Greek.
If I recall my humsex intro class, there were three main types, greco-roman, Polynesian and modern. I don't recall the differences completely, but they all differ and aren't all that alike with respect to relationship dynamics or purpose.
How obvious is that, once someone points it out?