> You are using the term 'value' in a loaded sense. If you use the proper term "consumer surplus,"
And you think he's making loaded arguments? The value he's talking about is simply the sum of consumer surplus and producer surplus. They're both legitimate; a sale price of $10 allots $9 in gains from trade (or "value") entirely to consumer surplus, and perfect discriminatory pricing allots the same $9 of value to producer surplus, but the value is still produced despite the consumer surplus being $0.
Compare the $14-uniform-price scenario, where the consumer surplus is $2, the producer surplus is $4, and the gains from trade are $6 when they could be $9. That's $3 of lost value, and I don't see why you think that's a biased or controversial way of putting it.
And you think he's making loaded arguments? The value he's talking about is simply the sum of consumer surplus and producer surplus. They're both legitimate; a sale price of $10 allots $9 in gains from trade (or "value") entirely to consumer surplus, and perfect discriminatory pricing allots the same $9 of value to producer surplus, but the value is still produced despite the consumer surplus being $0.
Compare the $14-uniform-price scenario, where the consumer surplus is $2, the producer surplus is $4, and the gains from trade are $6 when they could be $9. That's $3 of lost value, and I don't see why you think that's a biased or controversial way of putting it.