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Read my post again. Who exactly did I slander, besides nameless partisans?



The Koch Brothers as you misrepresented their stance and perpetuated a myth.


I'll repeat: read my post again.

I posted two typical positions held by partisans on either end of the political spectrum. Neither did I represent as my opinion, and definitely not as fact.

Why did you latch on to one of these positions? Aren't you equally outraged about the "leftist degenerate and tool of George Soros" position as well?

Did it occur to you that perhaps if I was posting two diametrically opposing viewpoints, I was making a larger point and not simply spouting my personal beliefs?

Have the downvotes proven my point?


Yes, I got that you were "posting two diametrically opposing viewpoints", but that doesn't mean that you should get a pass on misrepresenting the example you gave for one of your opposing viewpoints since it was in error and not the viewpoint of the party you attributed it to. I didn't look up George Soros's view on the issue to find out if your example's mention represented his belief or not.

Making larger points doesn't give one license to misrepresent the view of people in such a contentious issue. I'm sure if someone attributed that belief to you as part of a larger point, you would feel a bit slighted.

> Have the downvotes proven my point?

I cannot down vote you, and I don't know what the down voters found about your post that lead them to take their action. Perhaps they will comment also.


How exactly did I misrepresent the view?

Have not the Koch brothers been slandered in the media and in fact on the floor of the Senate? Have they not been made into the Great Conservative Boogeyman?

As for "homophobic": the first post in the thread contains the following phrase: "I guess 2 years is long enough for most people to have forgotten the brief storm about his homophobic political activities."

Do you mean to tell me that nobody would ever take such a position as I stated?


"How exactly did I misrepresent the view?"

oh for the love of words, your example was: "If Eich supported Prop 8 in California, then clearly he's a homophobic tool of the Koch Brothers."

So, you made the association of "homophobic tool" to "Koch Brothers" indicating that they have such tools. Your example directly attributed beliefs to the Koch Brothers that they do not hold and actually oppose with money. This would be misrepresentation.

"Have not the Koch brothers been slandered in the media and in fact on the floor of the Senate? Have they not been made into the Great Conservative Boogeyman?"

Yes, they have been slandered on the Senate floor. That doesn't give you a free pass to commit the same slander. Adding to the pile is not a commendable activity.

"Do you mean to tell me that nobody would ever take such a position as I stated?"

It seems that plenty of people like to attribute to people things they do not actually believe. It is quite common in politics. It is still slander.


I apologize for using sarcasm in my previous posts. That, along with pointing out absurdity, is apparently an unacceptable use of language for some.

In the future I shall try to make the effort of being very direct and to the point so as to avoid any confusion. This, hopefully, will alleviate the concerns of the literal-minded, the humorless, and the partisan.


How about, in the future, pick your examples with a care for those who you name.




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