> The Organisation for Economic Co-operation and Development (OECD), a club of mostly rich countries, reckons that labour captured just 62% of all income in the 2000s, down from over 66% in the early 1990s. That sort of decline is not supposed to happen.
Has the fraction of people supported by capital as opposed to labor stayed constant over that time period? I know OECD countries have been aging, it wouldn't take that much of a demographic shift towards retirees and other non-laborers to account for the change.
Has the fraction of people supported by capital as opposed to labor stayed constant over that time period? I know OECD countries have been aging, it wouldn't take that much of a demographic shift towards retirees and other non-laborers to account for the change.