Hacker News
new
|
past
|
comments
|
ask
|
show
|
jobs
|
submit
login
cdavid
on Oct 19, 2012
|
parent
|
context
|
favorite
| on:
Mathematics: Came across the following gag. Is it ...
It
is
proven that there is an infinite number of normal numbers, as quoted in the wiki article you're mentioning (p({a real; a is normal}) = 1).
lutusp
on Oct 19, 2012
[–]
Yes, because among other things it's clearly implied by "While a general proof can be given that
almost all numbers are normal
... " If true, then the set is infinite.
Consider applying for YC's Spring batch! Applications are open till Feb 11.
Guidelines
|
FAQ
|
Lists
|
API
|
Security
|
Legal
|
Apply to YC
|
Contact
Search:
