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However, if you do this, you will still need to comply with all relevant privacy laws.

For example, in the EU, you need user consent to use server logs that include IP addresses for analytics. You also need to provide post-consent opt-outs and privacy statements and audit logs and all off a sudden you're building another analytics tool.



How exactly does that work? You need consent for server logs? Am I able to run fail2ban without consent?


In the EU, IP addresses are personal data and you need a legal basis for each form of processing. You could make an argument that Fail2Ban falls under legitimate interest, but there is now precedent that analytics must have user consent and another legal basis will not be accepted.


No, logs don't require consent in that case, see recital 49.




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