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How is it misogynistic for more than one woman to have the same name? They aren't made up characters that people decided to all call Mary in some fit of misogyny.





Given that the books were written at least 40 years after the described events, how do we know they aren't made-up characters (or pastiches of real individuals)?

Perhaps 'Mary' was a stand-in name for "Woman nobody thought to write down the name of," like "Karen" is a stand-in name today.


Interesting idea, but questionable scholarship.



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