Why should control of 50% wealth equate to 50% of all consumption? Why not 70% of consumption or 40%? What is the reason that the two percentages are expected to be the same?
Because in the US wealth and consumption are considered two sides of the same coin.
Wealthy but not conspicuously consuming?
You're not keeping up with the Joneses.
Conspicuously consuming but poor (thanks, easy credit)?
You'll be mistaken as having more money than you do.
The two sides often come together in the upper-middle classes,
where people with more-than-comfortable incomes and financial resources will grossly overextend themselves on credit appear more well off than they already are.
