In the page, seems you see a slight downward trend starting in 2004, 2005 is at 69%, 2015 is at 63.7%. The charts I see end in 2015, which maybe the rate could have increased.
But I wonder how this is calculated. Say if a company/person owns hundreds of homes, would the company be counted as owning just 1 home or multiple homes.
What is needed is a count of real people owning homes. So, if 1 person owns multiple homes, they are counted as 1 home owner with the total of all owned homes used to calculate the % value. That would give us a better comparison.
It's the number of homes occupied by their owner. The number of people/households who own their home is lower, since many homes are occupied by their owner plus others.
But I wonder how this is calculated. Say if a company/person owns hundreds of homes, would the company be counted as owning just 1 home or multiple homes.
What is needed is a count of real people owning homes. So, if 1 person owns multiple homes, they are counted as 1 home owner with the total of all owned homes used to calculate the % value. That would give us a better comparison.