Did property rights at the time, given the existence of slavery, allow a person ... | Hacker News

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		anonymouskimmer on Feb 13, 2024 \| parent \| context \| favorite \| on: Cloudflare defeats patent troll Sable at trial Did property rights at the time, given the existence of slavery, allow a person to sell themselves into slavery? None of this shit is "obvious" without understanding a lot of legal basis. I didn't understand the legal basis until this discussion.

freejazz on Feb 13, 2024 [–]

Patents can't sell themselves, just the same as a house or slave. I think that's consistent with their conception of property rights, which save for slavery, remains unchanged in today's society. I do wonder if you think before you post.

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