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There's that nagging little issue that female virginity is far easier to reasonably validate than male virginity.

Whilst the disease transmission risks are not similarly asymmetric.




Explain how? Cause as far as I know, the hymen is not a reliable indicator of virginity.


"Reasonably" is doing heavy lifting in my earlier comment.

False negatives are possible, but not false positives, of PiV activity.

(Other activities of course leave no such evidence.)

And there's no equivalent physical indicia for males.

Also, as noted, if the concern is disease, then the fact of a test (however fallible) creates a highly asymmetric burden.




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