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> Therefore it can be aggressively abused to disenfranchise public shareholders who have no say in the creation of share classes in the first place.

Elaborate on this, because I think I'm misreading it.

It seems to me like shareholders, generally already have a vote. Converting those shares, from voting to non-voting, would be quite illegal (at the very least breach of contract) without shareholder sign-off. Which they probably wouldn't do... y'know... because they're the shareholders.

What's being discussed is issuing different shares (with approval of the voting shareholders). And if you don't like that, you can... just not invest in that company. There are several other companies you can invest in if that's what you want.

And if the companies that offer only non-voting shares dominate (probably being driven by the founders)... most investors would probably want that. Most investors are looking for a return first and foremost.

> An example of such a rule would be that all publicly traded companies have equal voting rights across all share classes: one share, one vote.

I agree that it's an example of such a rule. Do you have an argument for why it's a good rule?




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