Look, I'm at work and don't have time to dive deep into economic theory. If you read the source articles you'll see it has a 100 year plus history and is well grounded in basics of economics, in fact has more accurate base terms than most theories-- it is the first one to recognize that land and capital are separate concepts.
You also seem to be surprised that your ownership of land is a right granted by the government. Go ask your favorite law school professor about this, they will confirm that I am right.
Historically all land belonged to the sovereign. The US didn't like the idea of kings, so under our common law all land belongs to the US government.
And you get your rights to your piece of it because the law recognizes that you should have and deserve to have monopoly rights.
But if it wasn't fundamentally the property of the US federal government, where would the government get the legal jurisdiction to enforce the monopoly rights it has granted you? The US government will not enforce any property rights you may think you have in Mexico.
See, I'm not questioning private property, I want you to be able to own land. I'm looking at it in its proper full legal context.
Now you want to restrict voting rights to land owners, probably thinking some variant of "no taxation without representation", right? But recall that the fundamental owner is "we the people", not "we the individual to whom the people have granted a monopolistic usage of what we the people own".
So yes, since every citizen is in fact the land owner, then the single tax principle by default meets your criteria of restricting voting rights to land owners.
And since I've met your criteria, welcome to the movement. We are glad you are here.
You also seem to be surprised that your ownership of land is a right granted by the government. Go ask your favorite law school professor about this, they will confirm that I am right.
Historically all land belonged to the sovereign. The US didn't like the idea of kings, so under our common law all land belongs to the US government.
And you get your rights to your piece of it because the law recognizes that you should have and deserve to have monopoly rights.
But if it wasn't fundamentally the property of the US federal government, where would the government get the legal jurisdiction to enforce the monopoly rights it has granted you? The US government will not enforce any property rights you may think you have in Mexico.
See, I'm not questioning private property, I want you to be able to own land. I'm looking at it in its proper full legal context.
Now you want to restrict voting rights to land owners, probably thinking some variant of "no taxation without representation", right? But recall that the fundamental owner is "we the people", not "we the individual to whom the people have granted a monopolistic usage of what we the people own".
So yes, since every citizen is in fact the land owner, then the single tax principle by default meets your criteria of restricting voting rights to land owners.
And since I've met your criteria, welcome to the movement. We are glad you are here.