> Wouldn't the actual power be with the courts who would be the people convicting anyone accused of a crime by either FBI or CIA
Now let's think about how this would work.
The CIA obtains some information on a US citizen who is suspected of a crime, using methods that would be a violation of their constitutional rights, and therefore not be admissible as evidence against them in court.
The CIA can then (a) not share the information with the FBI; (b) share it with them, but they are not allowed to use it for anything because of how it was obtained; or (c) share it with them, and then they use it via parallel construction, in violation of the constitutional rights of the accused, and without revealing where they actually got it, causing "public trials" to become mendacious and opaque.
But (b) and (c) are the same thing, because the only use of (b) is to let (c) happen in secret.
I know they have a lawyer-drafted justification on file with the DOJ, but to the point of “courts permission” has that actually ever been tested in a real court (not FISA)? And if so is the decision public?
The CIA operates outside the law by design. They just need to say they're doing it for "national security reasons". There are laws that attempted to curtail these powers, but it has never done anything other than creating additional paperwork.
When I saw they comment I had a similar thought. Of course the separation of powers is about balance between the branches of government, and the CIA and FBI are both in the same branch.
But having them separate allows the Administrative branch to operate in a way that hypothetically shouldn’t step on the toes of the judicial. (Well, that is the hope at least).