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> It's not 100km/h.

Of course it is... if you're averaging over distance. There's no reason that's less valid than whichever average you have in mind.




How do you arrive at 100km/h if you're averaging over distance?

I don't doubt you're right, but I don't see it. My calculation is as follows: suppose the distance between both cities is 120km. The trip A -> B thus takes exactly one hour. The trip B -> A takes 1.5 hours (120km / 80km/h) = 1.5h. The total trip therefore takes 2.5h, the total distance is 240km, which averages at 96km/h (240/(1 + 1.5)).

A simple (V1 + V2)/2 is surely possible, but I don't see the value of that average, I can't think of a situation where it would be useful.


You are right. Harmonic mean is the right tool.


I think you are thinking about a case where someone goes 120km/h for 1 hour and then 80km/h for 1 hour instead of going over a fixed distance at 120km/h and then going over the same distance at 80km/h.


No. As I stated, the distance is the same.


I was responding to the person mentioning 100km/h as the correct answer (firstlink).




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