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No, I meant exactly what I said, more men are violent criminals per capita than women. What you said is also true, but it's not what I meant.



Moreover, unless we are talking about a very unusual subset of the population, the ratio of men:women is always almost 1:1, which renders the two statement functionally equivalent


Oh you meant in relation to women. I misinterpreted that you were saying if you pick 10 men, then over 5 of them are violent criminals.


They're equivalent, in this case.


They're both talking about the same phenomena and are technically correct, but the framing is different. Specifically, the latter wording tries to defuse blame on males.




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