There've been several studies indicating just perceiving women has a negative effect on heterosexual male academic performance. Until now I assumed men had the same effect on homosexual males. Perhaps that isn't the case?
Citation needed? I would love to see what controls are involved in this since my own personal research has shown "Misogynists love to blame women for their problems" pretty consistently.
The call for a citation is warranted, and, if the data supports the claim, I'm curious whether the same applies to homosexual males and if there is a significant difference between closeted and out homosexual males.
However, it does not follow that someone pointing out a biological reality (if it is, indeed, the reality) automatically blames women for their own sub-optimal performance and is therefore a misogynist. This is true, even if some misogynists use the exact same finding to do so.
