Please elaborate and /or share some links for someone interested in this angle.

You should use 150 years across multiple countries i.e. 150 years * N countries.

In-sample annual probability of Weimar is well under 0.5% so it is still a tricky topic to reason about even if you have a bigger sample.

Don't make it more complicated than it actually is, or you'll end up like Erasmus Montanus. The causality of hyper-inflation is a pretty simple principle to understand. And the effects are visible. I was there, in pre-war Yugoslavia, when my mother cashed in 1000 NOK for what to my 12 year old eyes looked like Scrooge McDuck amounts of Yugo Dinars. We had to get extra bags to carry it all. Meanwhile everywhere we turned, people were in despair because all value was evaporating. And what was left over, was heavily rationed.