If having one's virus research repeatedly published in the world's top journals, and securing a patent for a novel influenza vaccine, does not make one an expert, I think maybe we're casting too narrow a net. Not only in Sunetra Gupta an expert on viruses in my book, but one of the world's best.
> Asserting that all coronaviruses are similar and must have very similar effects in the short and long term seems like a very bad assumption to make
But I didn't do that. This brings us back to my original question: is there evidence that "long COVID19" is different than other long covids? If I'm understanding you correctly, you seem wont to presume that the answer is "yes", simply because the acute affects are different. But, as I pointed out, viruses with a wide-range of acute effects all produce clinically similar "post-viral syndrome". To my knowledge, there is no convincing evidence that SARS-CoV-2 is an outlier in this specific respect. Or am I wrong?
You misunderstand the nature of Gupta's expertise and how it might relate to the issue at hand. She has also demonstrated her lack of qualifications in this matter with her public statements even in the areas where she would be legitimately qualified.
You're just goalpost moving here, the argument in the article you are citing clearly says the viruses are similar and presumes that their effects are similar on that basis. If YOU don't accept that then you don't accept your own cited authority, you're wasting your own time here on that basis.
If having one's virus research repeatedly published in the world's top journals, and securing a patent for a novel influenza vaccine, does not make one an expert, I think maybe we're casting too narrow a net. Not only in Sunetra Gupta an expert on viruses in my book, but one of the world's best.
> Asserting that all coronaviruses are similar and must have very similar effects in the short and long term seems like a very bad assumption to make
But I didn't do that. This brings us back to my original question: is there evidence that "long COVID19" is different than other long covids? If I'm understanding you correctly, you seem wont to presume that the answer is "yes", simply because the acute affects are different. But, as I pointed out, viruses with a wide-range of acute effects all produce clinically similar "post-viral syndrome". To my knowledge, there is no convincing evidence that SARS-CoV-2 is an outlier in this specific respect. Or am I wrong?