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> That's the same as tying the consequences a person faces for a crime to their wealth (given how predictable the severity of these "2nd order consequences" are!)

I would actually say it's the opposite.

If you punish everyone with the same fine, their wealth is divorced from the punishment.

If you punish each person depending on their wealth, the punishment is directly proportional to their wealth.

In saying that, very poor people are definitely disproportionately affected by equal punishment. Though you could also say poor people would be more motivated to commit crimes if the punishment was proportional, since they stand to gain a lot more than a rich person.

I don't think there's a right answer.



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