China did liberate the area from feudalism by killing the ppl living there in the first place: https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Dzungar_genocide
China intentionally and resettled the uighurs there in first place after having killed 80% of the population that lived there.
How can you make an historical argument without mentioning this small detail?
And you failed to mention the small detail that what you linked to happened in 18th century, not post WWII, or anywhere close to 20th century. Not even led by the same ethnicity — Qing rulers were Manchus. Do we really need to bring up colonialist genocides?
My answer was to a post that brought up "...puerto rico, california and indian territories and UK ireland and France guiana and so on..." Those also were not post WWII.
But the parents argument was that from chinese perspective China has liberated the foreign state Turkestan and brought enlightenment to this region.
Considering the Genocide this interpretation seems somewhat dubious. And yes, i would expect such colonialist atrocities come up same as with other countries.
How can you make an historical argument without mentioning this small detail?