How do you interpret this? The first row he acquired 70,143 at a cost of $0, and the amount he owns after that is 70,143? So he didn't have any before the 11th? Then he sells them all for $LOTS, and then acquires another 70,143 at a cost of $0, and sells them all again? Is this just him cashing out a bonus paid in class A when his actual holdings (assuming he held any before the 11th) are in some other class?
If you scroll down in the sheet, you can see that he also disposed of the same number of class B shares. He is simply converting a small number of his class B shares (not publicly traded, 10X voting rights) to class A so he can sell them.
