No it doesn't. A fine's discouraging effect is proportional to the person's ability to pay for it.

I ran through the model in other comments, so I won't repeat it here, but in general the disincentive is the same, but people's desire to do something that costs a certain amount goes up with their wealth (called an income effect in economics).

> A constant fine has a constant discouraging effect.

In this scenario it is constant percentage though, as far as I understand it, and therefore should be constantly discouraging.

How so? I explained the model at length elsewhere in this thread.