If the points raised by the OP are nitpicks, then I guess it doesn’t matter to you that the sampled (D’) distribution is very close to some easily definable theoretical distribution (D)?
If so I can easily illustrate this “good enough quantum supremacy” in my own home and on a very limited budget. The simple reason is that it is absolutely trivial to set up a physical experiment (quantum or not) where it’s very hard for a computer to sample from the distribution of possible outcomes.
But is your low budget experiment programmable with a known sequence of well defined quantum gates? Can you statistically verify that your distribution is very close to D?
I don’t really understand... My claim started with “if so”. Now you’re (if I understood you) asking if I’m willing to make the unconditional claim (without “if so”)?
(No. If I was I wouldn’t have used the qualifier “if so”.)
If so I can easily illustrate this “good enough quantum supremacy” in my own home and on a very limited budget. The simple reason is that it is absolutely trivial to set up a physical experiment (quantum or not) where it’s very hard for a computer to sample from the distribution of possible outcomes.