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> Well, the measure of wealth in the modern era ought to be orders of magnitude bigger than it was in the stone age.

This is what I don't understand. Why should this make happiness "orders of magnitude bigger"? Isn’t it possible happiness has increased, just not by orders of magnitude?



I think the point is that since we have OOM more wealth, we are looking at some sort of asymptotic behaviour, right?

So if you expected wealth to be connected to happiness, and the connection is linear, you would expect happiness to be similarly off the scale.

It doesn't seem to be the case, so maybe it's something like a logarithm, so there's still an upward slope but it's barely anything.




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