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> Free speech and free association are not extant when books are banned or ideas are outlawed.

I mean, is this just arguing about the definition of the term "free speech"? It's not hard to think of easy examples, like the "shouting fire in a crowded theater" or "revealing military secrets to the enemy at times of war" or "libel" or "slander". By necessity, we accept that there are restrictions.

In general I favor a generous standard, where to disallow certain types of speech you need to carve out a compelling case -- the default should be that speech (and speech-like things) should not be forbidden. But stating it as a naked tautology is not helpful because it acknowledges none of the nuance.

> all historical evidence serves to confirm this

Once again, if we're just talking definitions, then sure, any place or time where books are banned or ideas are outlawed is not practicing free speech. But I think you'd be hard-pressed, given the exceptions above, to ever find a place in history where this was practiced.



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