Isn't this a glass half full/half empty situation? Why the cost imposed on non-whites doesn't get to be called a benefit on whites since they are exempt from payment? I know I'm arguing semantics, but it is interesting the change in nomenclature.
Technically speaking, yes. But the emotional resonance is very different. If you don't believe me, try telling a libertarian that there is no real difference between giving someone a tax break and a subsidy and see how willing they are to even entertain your argument.
