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I'm confused as to what you are disagreeing with here.

I was responding, in the general sense, to the claim that for medical research I guess it's not acceptable to use analogues because "it should be similar!" isn't a medically sound reason to use an analogue. This statement, evidently, doesn't map well to the field of pharmacology.

The benzodiazepines comprise at least twenty different chemicals in five classes.[1] Structural analogues[2] are as common as horse shit in medicine and medical research. Structural analogues are also present in the SSRI class of drugs[3].

Psilocybin and dimethyltryptamine are structural analogues. It's unsurprising that their effects are broadly similar when ingested orally.

With regards to your comment "... don't seem to affect the whole of the brain the way psychedelics do which we didn't really know about until 2016"... Surely that was evident to anyone who'd tried amphetamine at least once and mushrooms or LSD or DMT at least once. Amphetamine can be compared to caffeine, and even at high doses it doesn't really alter your way of perceiving the world. Where as the psychedelics, at sufficiently large doses, can be likened to being fucked open to God by Jesus, while riding a fluorescent unicorn and as you watch the universe unfold.

1. https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Benzodiazepine#Common_types

2. https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Structural_analog

3. https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Selective_serotonin_reuptake_i...




sorry, after re-reading the op I can see I misinterpreted your comment to mean SSRIs, benzodiazepines, and psilocybin had a similar effect on the brain. we don't disagree.




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