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> I don't think it's fair that people can make money from having 'perfect' knowledge of the market. I don't buy into the efficient market hypothesis.

These two statements don't seem related. And I don't understand the first one anyway. Where does "fairness" come in? It doesn't seem unreasonable to me that one person who has perfect knowledge about a financial market would be able to make money that someone who doesn't have perfect knowledge wouldn't. And it seems quite "fair" to me that this would be so; why should the person with better knowledge not be able to benefit from their better knowledge?




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