But you're not using a^n+b^n=c^n in your argument at the bottom of p.4. You just say "therefore g_1(n) divides a+b-c". My example shows that yhe implication doesn't follow in general. And it's not clear why it follows specifically if a,b,c are a solution to FLT.
I won't reply further to this question about g, i do think i've been clear. and at this point you can be on your merry way still thinking it's wrong. but you simply misunderstood.
it's a proof by contradiction. g would divide a+b-c IF a+b-c are integers.
for n=2, g(2)=(c-a)(c-b)g_1(2) and g_1(2)=2.
So only when n=2 is it true that g divides a+b-c.
Otherwise we get a contradiction that it divides. since then, g_1(n) for n>2 is not a factor of a+b-c, we can safely assume at least one of them was not an integer.
It doesn't follow from anything on p1-3. Certainly not directly. If you were being genuine about this I think you would appreciate an opportunity to improve the proof rather than resort to insults!
Nah not derived, set equal to from the outset with essentially no explanatory test throughout but with enough effort to insert some arbitrary graphs and label them with 'hey neato look at the vibes'
This would definitely benefit from a bit more explanatory text as I'm struggling to understand what you've shown. The crux seems to be that if a^n+b^n=c^n then (c-a)(c-b) divides (a+b-c)^n. I haven't been through all the details of this, but I also don't see how that implies FLT.
If I'm not mistaken Fermat's last theroem isn't even featured in the proof. Like nowhere did I see a^n+b^n=c^n referenced in the proof,save for the end of page 1 and 3, but it's never featured in an equality. Just 'this implies this trust me bro'.
I've actually had another quick look and I now have a vague idea of the outline. It's an attempted proof by contradiction, where a solution to FLT is applied to the binomial theorem and some arguments about integrality are made to form a contradiction.
My issue at the moment is with a line at the bottom of p.4, which effectively says that if k^n = xy for integers k, n, x, y, then k must be a multiple of y. Unless I'm missing something this is clearly false, for example 2^4 = 4 x 4.