Maybe it's the generation gap? As a kid, I loved that I could "play" on the PC with Clippy, which mostly consisted on trying it to appear and make it do something. I get that if you were trying to get some work done, it might have been annoying.
Does it have a terminal assistant that I have not heard of? Otherwise, the parent asks about an assistant that is able to run various tools and stuff, not just talk.
You can install codex without npm if you build it yourself, they have migrated to rust in June and npm is just a convenient install wrapper it seems.
Just `git clone git@github.com:openai/codex.git`, `cd codex-rs`, `cargo build --release` (If you have many cores and not much RAM, use `-j n`, where n is 1 to 4 to decrease RAM requirements)
I'm really interested in your reasoning, specifically this part:
> It's almost like Europeans don't belong in the Middle East.
What is "European" in this case and where do they belong? Do we measure by skin tone, genetics or language? What about birth place?
Wherever and whoever you are, your ancestors have definitely killed to be there, which lead you to being here somewhere.
So, where do we send white people? Can we do the same for asians/christians/arabs/blacks/people with glasses? And most important, what do we do with mixed heritage people? How pure must the blood be to consider them of some certain "race"?
Europeans are people, then and now, whose families have lived in European lands for hundreds of years, but believe they have the biblical right to "return" to a land they have no connection to and "settle on" (steal) the land and houses of Palestinians whose families have lived in those lands for almost a thousand years. This is common sense, and you know full well you would never entertain such a claim from a holy book of any other religion. No amount of semantic games and moving the goalposts changes this fact, or the fact that most "returning" Israelis were European Jews who changed their names to conceal that fact.
Is it legal to pay people based on the radius of their right eye iris with 500lumen 27" display placed 1M in front of them? Or blood type? Or armpit hairiness? Or maybe tongue length?
This is a half joke comment, I'm actually wondering - what can you discriminate on generally in US? (and where you draw the arbitrary line (not saying other countries are better/worse)).
> I'm actually wondering - what can you discriminate on generally in US?
In the US, it’s legal to discriminate on pretty much any basis, with the right justification. What the justification required is (which can be "none at all" for certain cases), however, depends on, besides the basis for discrimination, some combination of:
(1) Are you the federal government, a state (including any subdivision) government, or a private actor (and, in the latter case, are you acting as a contractor for the federal or a state government), and
(2) What is the function (employment, sales of goods or services, government benefits, etc.) for which you are discriminating?
If you mean, what can you discriminate on with no special justification at all, well:
(1) If you are a private actor, almost any basis which does not have an explicit legal restriction applicable to the function you are discriminating with regard to, and if the function isn't a narrow (but signficant) set of functions—the big ones being employment, housing, or a function considered a "public accommodation"—that is pretty much every basis.
(2) If you are the government actor (state or federal), almost no basis at all: while it is a low bar, pretty much every act by which the government discriminates is subject to, at a minimum, what is called the "rational basis test" (this is a consequence, essentially, of jurisprudence apply the due process clauses of the 5th and 14th Amendments and the equal protection clause of the 14th), which requires that the discrimination have a legitimate public purpose and some rational relationship to that purpose.
But to answer comprehensively is...well, a lot more complicated (and different, because of varying state law protections, in each state in some regards.)
Thank you for taking the time to answer me. So it seems like if there is a reasonable correlation with a protected class and no real relation to the job, you can still be liable.
This has come up in cases where, for example, machine learning (or even heuristics) were used to sort candidates and the algorithms were discovered to be discriminating based on things like name or zip code, which in the US correlate heavily with race and cannot be used as discriminators for that reason (the court does not turn a blind eye to the notion "Well, Your Honor, technically we weren't discriminating against race, we were discriminating against people named 'Jaqualin'...").
IIUC, precedent is that is incumbent upon the organization using machine learning to confirm that their system hasn't come up with a novel proxy for one of the protected classes and is using that proxy to violate discrimination protections.
This was my conclusion, too! Over time as agentic coders get better at handling higher-complexity tasks, this kind of bracing will become less and less necessary.
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